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Re: Gaussian vs uniform noise audibility



       Amplitude distributions in time are related to correlations
across
frequency. In gaussian noise, the amplitudes and phases of the
different
frequency components are independent. In non-gaussian noise, even with
white power spectrum, amplitudes and/or phases are correlated.
Do you have a reference for these statements?  My understanding is that
the amplitude distribution is largely irrelevant to the frequency
content (for example if you take any signal and sort or permute it in
time it sounds completely different yet retains the original amplitude
distribution).

Thanks,
Paris