Subject: [AUDITORY] Estimation of auditory sensory thresholds from below: any evidence? From: Massimo Grassi <massimo.grassi@xxxxxxxx> Date: Fri, 17 Nov 2023 14:01:45 +0100--000000000000ad196e060a58bdb7 Content-Type: text/plain; charset="UTF-8" Dear all, I was recently writing a paper about threshold estimation in hearing and at some point I stopped. Let suppose you are estimating a frequency discrimination threshold with a classic 2-down 1-up staircase rule (Levitt, 1971). Theoretically, you could approach the threshold from below or from above, I repeat this every year to 1st year students when I teach them the method of limits! In practice, however, in psychoacoustics we rarely-to-never approach the threshold from below. Is there any reason for this "tradition"? I know the psychometric function should be symmetric below and above threshold! But this does not explain the "tradition"! All the best from "it is almost winter" North East Italy. m --000000000000ad196e060a58bdb7 Content-Type: text/html; charset="UTF-8" Content-Transfer-Encoding: quoted-printable <div dir=3D"ltr">Dear all,<div><br></div><div>I was recently writing a pape= r about threshold estimation in hearing and at some point=C2=A0I stopped.= =C2=A0</div><div><br></div><div>Let suppose you are estimating a frequency = discrimination threshold with a classic 2-down 1-up staircase rule (Levitt,= 1971). Theoretically, you could approach the threshold from below or from = above, I repeat this every year to 1st year students=C2=A0when I teach them= the method of limits! In practice, however, in psychoacoustics we rarely-t= o-never approach the threshold from below.</div><div><br></div><div>Is ther= e any reason for this "tradition"? I know=C2=A0the psychometric f= unction should be symmetric below and above threshold! But this does not ex= plain the "tradition"!</div><div><br></div><div>All the best from= "it is almost winter" North East Italy.</div><div>m</div></div> --000000000000ad196e060a58bdb7--