Subject: Re: Af0 frequency difference limen From: Christian Kaernbach <auditorylist@xxxxxxxx> Date: Thu, 15 Jan 2009 10:36:26 +0100 List-Archive:<http://lists.mcgill.ca/scripts/wa.exe?LIST=AUDITORY>I suppose Jim is correct and we should always mention the f0 where the DL was measured. Your posts made me reread my paper, and indeed the DL were smaller than 0.5%. They were for complex tones 0.36% for F0=100Hz, and 0.19% for F0=250Hz (cut frequency of the high pass 1 kHz, no low-pass masker). This is in accordance with what has been reported in the literature. Pure tone DL were much higher (0.43% for 250 Hz, 0.89% for 100 Hz). I suppose that F0 frequencies below 1kHz are quite relevant to music so that relatively high DLs (>0.1% for complex tones) should be taken into account when dealing with music. Best, Chris > Date: Wed, 14 Jan 2009 16:14:37 -0600 > From: "James W. Beauchamp" <jwbeauch@xxxxxxxx> > Subject: Re: f0 frequency difference limen > > In terms of musical intervals, 0.2% for partials, 0.1% for the F0 > translates into 3.4 and 1.7 cents, respectively, where 100 cents > corresponds to an equal-tempered semitone change of pitch. > > I wouldn't think that this result would be completely independent > of F0. I would expect the percentage threshold to increase for > F0s below a certain point. It would also depend on the spectrum. > I.e., spectra with just a few partials in the bass region may > have much larger DLs. But 2 cents is a good practical df to > shoot for in any music synthesis system. > > Jim > -- Prof. Dr. Christian Kaernbach Allgemeine Psychologie Institut für Psychologie Christian-Albrechts-Universität zu Kiel Olshausenstr. 62 D-24098 Kiel Germany www.kaernbach.de