Subject: Re: question about overtones From: Ranjit Randhawa <rsran(at)SPRINTMAIL.COM> Date: Thu, 17 Nov 2005 10:06:22 -0500Dear Tom I have proposed in the past that as far as auditory preception is concerned, a pure tone will also create overtones, contrary to analysis by Fourier or any of its many extensions. For, a description of this, please visit my website, www.tonepitch.com where I have shown the normalized amplitudes for not only a pure tone, but also some other complex waveforms. The basis of the method described is admittedly unorthodox, and I have been thinking about its relationship to autocorrelation, but have not made much progress. The differences by far exceed any commonality, though it is possible that I am too close to the problem. I do have psycho-acoustical experiments to support my approach, but here again, the experiments were designed to specifically to elucidate the structure for the required algorithms. Any comments or suggestions would be most welcome. Cheers Randy -----Original Message----- From: Tom Lee <edgar109(at)YAHOO.COM> Sent: Nov 16, 2005 7:58 PM To: AUDITORY(at)LISTS.MCGILL.CA Subject: question about overtones Dear list, Does anyone have information about the amplitude relation between a tone and its overtones? What I mean is, if I have some frequency and I want to generate its natural overtone series, how loud do I make the overtones in relation to the fundamental? Thanks in advance! -Tom Live by the foam sword; die by the foam sword! http://www.yale.edu/freeduel Keep the jukebox swinging. __________________________________ Yahoo! Mail - PC Magazine Editors' Choice 2005 http://mail.yahoo.com