Subject: From: B Suresh Krishna <suresh(at)CNS.NYU.EDU> Date: Tue, 23 Feb 1999 17:53:04 -0500Hi Is there any published literature on differences (or the lack thereof) in the perception of waveforms as compared to their inverse polarity counterparts ? I always believed that it was fundamental dogma that there weren't any; but have not been able to find this substantiated (or refuted) anywhere, despite extensive searching. Thanks !! Suresh