Re: Robust method of fundamental frequency estimation

[Eckard Blumschein <Eckard.Blumschein@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

Zitat von Dan Ellis <dpwe@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>:

> > I've always wondered why playing a bass line on the bottom octaves
> > of the piano can almost never serve the same sonic role as playing
> > the same bass line on a stand-up (acoustic) bass or electric bass guitar
> > (I'm talking about a popular music and jazz context here).
>
>
> I don't know the answer, but I took the FFT of the lowest note of the piano
> from the MUMS grand piano samples; it's at:
>
>   http://labrosa.ee.columbia.edu/~dpwe/tmp/mumsPianoA0.jpg

Hallo Dan,

May I ask you to perform something like cepstrum or autocorrelation with the
original data or to perform (after one way rectification) inverse FT or just
once again FT and get a much less periodic result?

Maybe I was not entirely wrong within

http://iesk.et.uni-magdeburg.de/~blumsche/M275.html
http://iesk.et.uni-magdeburg.de/~blumsche/M277.html
http://iesk.et.uni-magdeburg.de/~blumsche/M283.html

My piano generates nearly pure tones.
A guitar generates many overtones.

Sincerely Yours,
Eckard