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Re: perceptual equivalence of polarity inverted waveforms
On 23 Feb 1999, B. Suresh Krishna wrote:
>
>Is there any published literature on differences (or the lack thereof) in
>the perception of waveforms as compared to their inverse polarity
>counterparts?
>
>I always believed that it was fundamental dogma that there weren't any;
>but have not been able to find this substantiated (or refuted) anywhere,
>despite extensive searching.
>
Evidence concerning the perceptual equivalence of polarity inverted
waveforms is furnished by complex periodic sounds in which one half-period
is the polarity inverted restatement of the other. Conditions under which
this equivalence can be observed is of interest because of the
implications concerning temporal and spectral auditory analyses. See (1)
Warren & Wrightson, JASA, 1981, 70, 1020-1024, (2) Warren, Bashford, &
Brubaker (Experiment 7), JASA, 1989, 86, 116-125, (3) Warren, Auditory
Perception: A New Analysis and Synthesis, Cambridge University Press,
1999 (pp. 84-88).
Dick